Why doesn't the last line of my proof shed a successor instead of adding one. Note: i'm doing these excercises outside of a classroom setting and don't condone people using it to cheat on hw, I just don't know where else to ask it. From the tactics chapter in Pierce.
Theorem plus_n_n_injective : forall n m,
n + n = m + m ->
n = m.
Proof.
intros n. induction n as [| n'].
intros.
simpl in H.
destruct m.
reflexivity.
discriminate.
intros.
rewrite <- plus_n_Sm in H.
destruct m.
discriminate.
rewrite <- plus_n_Sm in H.
apply S_injective in H.
simpl in H.
apply S_injective in H.
apply S_injective.
where these auxiliary lemmas are used
Theorem S_injective : forall (n m : nat),
S n = S m ->
n = m.
Proof.
intros n m H1.
assert (H2: n = pred (S n)). { reflexivity. }
rewrite H2. rewrite H1. reflexivity.
Qed.
Theorem plus_n_Sm : forall n m : nat,
S (n + m) = n + (S m).
Proof.
intros n m. induction n as [| n' IHn'].
simpl.
reflexivity.
simpl.
rewrite -> IHn'.
reflexivity.
Qed.
If you have a look at the statement of S_injective:
Theorem S_injective : forall (n m : nat),
S n = S m ->
n = m.
you will see it says that to prove n = m it is enough to prove S n = S m.
Before you apply it, you have to prove S n' = S m, and then you say you only need to prove S (S n') = S (S m). It's because apply in the goal is doing some backward thinking.
What you want instead is being able to say n = m -> S n = S m. You can prove the lemma by hand like you did, or you can use the f_equal tactic which works in general to prove f n = f m from n = m for any f (roughly).