What is the lowest order of the following function as n
tends to infinity?
where a>1
and 0<p<1
.
My answer: Since ln(1+x) <= x
,
Therefore, f(n) = O(a^n)
. I am sure this is not a tight bound. I might be able to use to obtain a tighter bound, but I don't think it will improve the order. Any idea? Please let me know anything you think may be helpful.
Answer: O(n^2)
.
Proof:
f(n) = sum(i,log(pa^i+(1-p)))
= sum(i,log(p*a^i(1+(1-p)/(pa^i))))
=< sum(i,i*log(a)) + sum(i,log(p)) + sum(i,(1-p)/(pa^i))
=< n*(n+1)*log(a)/2 + n*log(p) + (1-p)/p * 1/(1-1/a)
This estimate is optimal because all inequalities are actually asymptotic equivalences.
Note that this is much smaller than your exponential estimate.